Looks like Darby got to you before I could get home from school tonight. Thanks for that, Darby! /ttiforum/images/graemlins/smile.gif I'll ignore your polemics and baiting, and just focus on the issue of how we are supposed to compare Titor's predictions vs. the reality that shows up in our timeline.
Conjecture begins when you form ANY interpretation of Titors posts, whether literal or not.
No, clearly that is not globally true. That is because the need for interpretation is dependent upon the vagueness of any prediction. IOW, people are plenty capable of forming statements that are, indeed, literal and require no conjecture or need for interpretation. For example, Titor claimed the civil war started in 2004, then typo'ed (according to his own correction) and said 2005, but then re-affirmed the 2004 date when questioned again. These are actual years, no interpretation (or follow on conjecture required). No question of whether he meant "winter 2004" or "summer 2004". Furthermore, going literally by his words, he was wrong in 2004, and even if we are willing to stretch (and not take his words literally) he is running out of time to be correct in his prediction for 2005, NO MATTER THE INTERPRETATION. So you can see that your statement is not a global truth. I will give you; however, that your statement is true for any vague statements, which Titor seemed to invoked quite a bit.
But please provide me with any reasoning as to why the interpretation should be soley literal?
I've done it before but you do not address the point: Because this is the only way one can measure, with any sort of scientific accuracy, whether his predictions "came true". Without taking them literally, we descend into the re-interpretive cycle that Darby has pointed out. IOW, if you can't take his literal predictions literally (see date example above), then there is certainly no value in conjecturing, because the possible solution space is endless. If we don't take them literally, then they should be dismissed wholly... at least speaking from a scientific, rather than an entertainment, standpoint.
I am just not persuaded to be biased by his words in either way.
Wow. So are you telling me your are the first person to ever be free from bias? While you might never admit bias in writing or speech, I'd bet a trained psychotherapist might be able to uncover some inherent biases you have towards the Titor story just from your upbringing alone.
Trying to debunk an arguement on heresay is just plain ridiculous.
Who's trying to debunk his argument? Folks like myself and Darby are simply pointing out that Titor's literal words are not aligning with reality. Others are certainly free to conjecture, assume, and interpret what they think Titor "meant", but we only deal with the words that were written... and all the contradictions that go with them.
By your very arguement, all chirstians must take the Bible literally, as the only thing we have are the bibles words and any God behind it has not stepped forward to clarify the matter.
That is such an invalid comparision on so many levels, but let's address two: Neither myself nor Darby were around when the books of the Bible were written. Yet we were both here when Boomer was doing his thing. Second, the reason people find Titor's story so compelling is because in the big picture it is all
plausible. Yes, it COULD have happened the way he said, and he certainly drew on information available in 2000-2001 to make it seem more plausible (i.e. Boomer knew about Mad Cow disease back then, so he wove it into his story, yet little to nothing was known about Bird Flu, so it is conspicuously absent from his story). Yet there are clearly passages in the Bible that are not even plausible to a scientifically-minded person. Ergo, no comparision.
You also ignore the fact that any person can only answer a question to the best of their knowledge. Your posts seem to ignore this and assume the poster is infallible, or at least claims he is. Neither situation is the case.
Again, this has absolutely no bearing on the issue unless I wish to conjecture about Titor. I am not doing that. I am only evaluating the words, not the person behind them or their lack of knowledge. He made predictions. I follow them literally, where possible, and history is the judge... not me!
All in all your kind of thinking (at least the one your portray, I can only take your words literally ), is illogical, unhelpful and doesn't really add anything to the arguement.
That would be a polemic intended to provoke anger, so I will ignore. But I will jab right back at you and tell you that your spelling leaves something to be desired, and is unhelpful.
I made a point about nomenaclature. I pointed the difference in nomeneclature between winter and summer olympics. I also pointed that titor used the nomeneclature commonly associated with the summer olympics. Now it *could* well be that he spoke in a text book literal manner and that by "olympics" he meant all olympic events. On the otherhand it could be that he was using the common speak nomeneclature for the summer olympics and only meant that event.
There's one more hand that you are omitting: It could also be that you are focusing solely on the word "Olympics" from his quote and not addressing the word that came before it: "official". Titor took the time to put that word in there in an attempt to convey meaning, and there is certainly meaning to that word when taken literally. If he was only using the casual reference of "Olympics" to mean "Summer Olympics", why did he need to add the word "official"? See, that is where conjecture begins and that is what I won't do. But another thing I won't do is ignore words that have meaning in an attempt to broaden the scope of what he "meant". He could just as easily written "no official summer or winter Olympics". Yet "official Olympics" clearly means any Olympic games that are officially held and result in official records.
Assuming either one of these cases to be fact immediately biases your arguement and thus renders it invalid as proof of anythings, from a scientific point of view.
Yes, that would be true if I were only analyzing the word "Olympics". Yet your argument (note spelling) falls apart once the word "official" is taken together with "Olympics". This is because it is a fact that BOTH the winter AND the summer Olympics are, indeed, official Olympic games. Nothing unscientific about that... it's merely following proper definitions.
scientific argument can't be grounded on the foundation of an unprovable assumption based on the bias of the observer.(except perhaps some branches of quantum physics hehe). Which is what you are doing.
Care to take that back now that I have pointed out your analysis (and assumption about what you thought I was assuming) is incorrect? It is certainly not an unproveable assumption that the winter Olympics are just as official as the summer Olympics. Again, don't confuse what I am doing as trying to interpret what Titor meant. I am only analyzing what he actually said, and I have given enough reason for why this is the only scientific approach you can take to pointing out where he was incorrect in his predictions. Once you cease taking his words literally, then it is just a story, and that certainly can mean anything to anyone.
RMT