I guess I'm waking up a 2 year old forum.
I have an aporetic question. (That's the best-fit word I could come up with in that I am skeptical of my own question)
I've been reading some old posts concerning multiple universes and multiple time lines. There is no way to prove or disprove the assertion but;
If there were an "infinite" number of time lines or universes would that set the probabilities to "1" that any event would occur since every possible event will occur with infinite chances of occurrence?
Or, would probabilities then be used to make the observation, will an event occur in the universe or time line we are in?
It has been a long time since my probabilities and statistics class and I can't recall how to deal with an infinite set. A bell curve or something.
Kind of off the wall but it makes me wonder none the less.
I have an aporetic question. (That's the best-fit word I could come up with in that I am skeptical of my own question)
I've been reading some old posts concerning multiple universes and multiple time lines. There is no way to prove or disprove the assertion but;
If there were an "infinite" number of time lines or universes would that set the probabilities to "1" that any event would occur since every possible event will occur with infinite chances of occurrence?
Or, would probabilities then be used to make the observation, will an event occur in the universe or time line we are in?
It has been a long time since my probabilities and statistics class and I can't recall how to deal with an infinite set. A bell curve or something.
Kind of off the wall but it makes me wonder none the less.