G
Guest
Dear TT-0,
I apologize for the confusion. I am still in the process of honing my descriptive writing skills. The center of rotation is where y1 intersects x2, not in the center of x1 and x2. In truth it does not matter but I find that it is easier to visualize the results if you allow the piviting point or fulcrum of y1 to be located at the intersection of x2 which is the bottom of the two parallel lines x1 and x2. (y1 being a vertical line.) If you know draw it out one can see graphically that the angular decrease of the angle between y1 and the parallel lines x1 and x2 are still symetrical. By rotating the perpindicular line y1 90 degrees in a clockwise direction the angle between y1 and x2 will diminish to zero. This can be seen graphically if one draws this representation on paper. One will also notice that the angular decrease between line y1 and parallel line x1(which is the top parallel line that is parallel to the bottom parallel line x2) is always simultaneous to the angular decrease between the same y1 and x2. We can assume that there will always be an intersection between line y1 and parallel lines x1 and x2 and so long as line y1 is straight those angles will always be equal. So if line y1 is pivoted 45 degrees to the right then at the intersections of (y1,x1) and (y1,x2) the angle will be 45 degrees. When you are drawing this out remember that the pivot point of y1 is at the intersection (y1,x2). Thus the intersection y1 and x2 remains fixed at you location and the intersection of (y1,x1) accelerate to your right such that the intersection (y1,x1) travel an infinite distance to the right along parallel line x1 arriving at an infinite distance at the instant that y1 has pivoted ninety degrees to the right. In the model you drew out the pivot point was between lines x1 and x2 at six inches. That would result in the intersection (y1,x2) accelerating to an infinite distance to the left along parallel line x2 while intersection (y1,x1) speed off to an infinite distance to the right along parallel line x1. Still the intersection angles between lines (y1,x1) and (y1,x2) diminish to zero at 90 degrees rotation of line y1 in a clockwise manner. (If you pivot line y1 in a counter-clockwise manner the same will result but instead intersection (y1,x1) will acelerate to the left instead of the right.)According to the above model the aceleration of the intersection (y1,x1) to the right accelerates exponentially to an infinite velocity and distance as line y1 rotates 90 degrees at a fixed velocity (or constant velocity). That means that 90 degrees of constant rotary acceleration is equal to infinite exponential linear acceleration. Thus for every revolution of a spinning mass there are four periods of infinite exponential linear acceleration. If we use the spinning minute hand of a clock and allow the 12 O'clock to represent the starting point of our measurement then we will have our first exponential infinite acceleration in fifteen minutes as the minute hand reaches 12:15. The second will be reached at 12:30 and the third at 12:45 and finally the fourth at 1:00 O'clock. If we can devise a way to convert constant rotary acceleration into linear aceleration without losing any energy we can enable a mass to accelerate to an infinite velocity or put out an infinite kenetic potential. If rotating electric fields or magnetic fields can be rotated at a fixed velocity at one full revolution per second and if we can convert this rotary motion of electric fields into linear motion in the form of electrical output then we will have an electrical ourput of infinity four times each second. That means if we were to take an oscilliscope and measure the electrical sine wave of our linear electrical output that the sign wave will reach a peak amplitude of infinity four times a second so long as our electric field makes a full revolution once every second.
What does everyone think? Agian this is based on allot of assumptions and I could be wrong so fill free to tear it apart and find the flaws. But be sure to post them otherwise I won't learn anything. I need your help and input to assist me in finding out more accurate info. So long as you all place your oppinions of my models on the forum I will continue to put my ideas out here. You scratch my back,and I'll scratch yours.
sincerely,
Edwin G. Schasteen e-mail addresses are [email protected] and [email protected]
I apologize for the confusion. I am still in the process of honing my descriptive writing skills. The center of rotation is where y1 intersects x2, not in the center of x1 and x2. In truth it does not matter but I find that it is easier to visualize the results if you allow the piviting point or fulcrum of y1 to be located at the intersection of x2 which is the bottom of the two parallel lines x1 and x2. (y1 being a vertical line.) If you know draw it out one can see graphically that the angular decrease of the angle between y1 and the parallel lines x1 and x2 are still symetrical. By rotating the perpindicular line y1 90 degrees in a clockwise direction the angle between y1 and x2 will diminish to zero. This can be seen graphically if one draws this representation on paper. One will also notice that the angular decrease between line y1 and parallel line x1(which is the top parallel line that is parallel to the bottom parallel line x2) is always simultaneous to the angular decrease between the same y1 and x2. We can assume that there will always be an intersection between line y1 and parallel lines x1 and x2 and so long as line y1 is straight those angles will always be equal. So if line y1 is pivoted 45 degrees to the right then at the intersections of (y1,x1) and (y1,x2) the angle will be 45 degrees. When you are drawing this out remember that the pivot point of y1 is at the intersection (y1,x2). Thus the intersection y1 and x2 remains fixed at you location and the intersection of (y1,x1) accelerate to your right such that the intersection (y1,x1) travel an infinite distance to the right along parallel line x1 arriving at an infinite distance at the instant that y1 has pivoted ninety degrees to the right. In the model you drew out the pivot point was between lines x1 and x2 at six inches. That would result in the intersection (y1,x2) accelerating to an infinite distance to the left along parallel line x2 while intersection (y1,x1) speed off to an infinite distance to the right along parallel line x1. Still the intersection angles between lines (y1,x1) and (y1,x2) diminish to zero at 90 degrees rotation of line y1 in a clockwise manner. (If you pivot line y1 in a counter-clockwise manner the same will result but instead intersection (y1,x1) will acelerate to the left instead of the right.)According to the above model the aceleration of the intersection (y1,x1) to the right accelerates exponentially to an infinite velocity and distance as line y1 rotates 90 degrees at a fixed velocity (or constant velocity). That means that 90 degrees of constant rotary acceleration is equal to infinite exponential linear acceleration. Thus for every revolution of a spinning mass there are four periods of infinite exponential linear acceleration. If we use the spinning minute hand of a clock and allow the 12 O'clock to represent the starting point of our measurement then we will have our first exponential infinite acceleration in fifteen minutes as the minute hand reaches 12:15. The second will be reached at 12:30 and the third at 12:45 and finally the fourth at 1:00 O'clock. If we can devise a way to convert constant rotary acceleration into linear aceleration without losing any energy we can enable a mass to accelerate to an infinite velocity or put out an infinite kenetic potential. If rotating electric fields or magnetic fields can be rotated at a fixed velocity at one full revolution per second and if we can convert this rotary motion of electric fields into linear motion in the form of electrical output then we will have an electrical ourput of infinity four times each second. That means if we were to take an oscilliscope and measure the electrical sine wave of our linear electrical output that the sign wave will reach a peak amplitude of infinity four times a second so long as our electric field makes a full revolution once every second.
What does everyone think? Agian this is based on allot of assumptions and I could be wrong so fill free to tear it apart and find the flaws. But be sure to post them otherwise I won't learn anything. I need your help and input to assist me in finding out more accurate info. So long as you all place your oppinions of my models on the forum I will continue to put my ideas out here. You scratch my back,and I'll scratch yours.
sincerely,
Edwin G. Schasteen e-mail addresses are [email protected] and [email protected]