Anyone know about this device? It has a very intereasting story behind it. I found info about it a while back and my friend recently brought it up with me since he saw a program on it on the discovry channel. This device when paired with a controled black hole could power the entire world forever, it could give an infinaite amount of energy forever. If we (someone) could create this device then it would counter act the problem of E=mc2.
Zero point gravity modulator
- Thread starter Keven
- Start date
RenUnconscious
Quantum Scribe
I first heard of a ZPM on Stargate and I have no idea how it is theorhetically supposed to work. but I disagree with your statement on it "counter-acting" the problem of E=MC^2.
You can't counter-act something that is not a problem, e=mc^2 is more of a ratio than anything else.
What i meant was that it is a problem to us with the level of tehcnology we have now, if we can create a device that has an energy output of infity with a finitve mass then we have no problem working with E=mc2, but right now we can't get to the higher speeds becasue we do not have enough energy to run the requird machines.
Darby
Epochal Historian
kevin.
If you set c=1 (which is done routinely in physics problems) then you have:
E=m
Energy and mass are different aspects of the same thing - they are the same.
That's not a problem - it's just a statement of physical fact. There's no "problem" to overcome.
Note: You might argue that C=1 is incorrect because c = 300,000km/sec or c=186,300 mps.
The answer is, kilometers and miles are not fundamental measures of anything...they are man made metrics based on the "average" human stride. We can set "c" to equal any metric that we choose so long as we adjust every other metric in the problem to match the metric. Setting c=1 makes no difference in the outcome...and the square of "1" is still "1"...which is lot easier to deal with than the square of 300,000 or 186,300.
And that's why you see most physics problems stated with the assumpion that c=1 (and someother metrics as well). The answer to the problem is exactly the same...it's just a matter of easier math when you square or divide the number "1". /ttiforum/images/graemlins/smile.gif
If you set c=1 (which is done routinely in physics problems) then you have:
E=m
Energy and mass are different aspects of the same thing - they are the same.
That's not a problem - it's just a statement of physical fact. There's no "problem" to overcome.
Note: You might argue that C=1 is incorrect because c = 300,000km/sec or c=186,300 mps.
The answer is, kilometers and miles are not fundamental measures of anything...they are man made metrics based on the "average" human stride. We can set "c" to equal any metric that we choose so long as we adjust every other metric in the problem to match the metric. Setting c=1 makes no difference in the outcome...and the square of "1" is still "1"...which is lot easier to deal with than the square of 300,000 or 186,300.
And that's why you see most physics problems stated with the assumpion that c=1 (and someother metrics as well). The answer to the problem is exactly the same...it's just a matter of easier math when you square or divide the number "1". /ttiforum/images/graemlins/smile.gif
Darby
Epochal Historian
kevin,
Let's substitute the terms in the problem, as you define them, and evaluate it.
Let c=1
Let m=infinity
E=mc^2
E=m * 1^2 = infinity
E = infinity
You still end up with a situation where you need an infinite mass to end up with infinite energy.
You can't do this instantaneously. It takes time to convert mass to energy (or energy to mass) so you have:
E(m) = lim_t-->infinity d(mc^2)/dt
Translated it means that energy is a function of mass. Infinite mass can be converted to infinite energy as the limit of time as it approaches infinity.
In other words it takes forever to convert infinite mass to infinite energy.
And you still have to consider the Lorentz Transformation when you add into the basic problem relativistic changes in velocity (acceleration).
In that case the problem is no longer simply stated as E = mc^2. The relativistic statement of the problem becomes:
E = mc^2/sqrt(1-v^2/c^2)
As you can see in the divisor, as "v" increases ever closer to "c" v^2/c^2 begins to approach unity, i.e. v^2/c^2 = ~1. As that happens your transformation starts to look like this:
E = (mc^2)/sqrt(~1-1). "E" tends to infinity because the divisor is tending to zero. And energy is mass.
Mass is defined as the property of matter that resists a change in momentum. The more massive an object the harder it is to change its momentum (Harder to change its velocity. An imprecise statement for the purist but close enough.).
This is the reason why "c" becomes a limit that cannot be attained. You have to have increasingly larger units of energy to eck out even the slighest change in velocity as you cloesly approach the speed of light. Those units of energy input begin to look like "infinity" the closer you get to the light of speed.
This can't be stated precisely as an algebra problem. To fully appreciate the issue it has to be stated in terms of differential calculus. But the simplified math is close enough for our purposes. /ttiforum/images/graemlins/smile.gif
Let's substitute the terms in the problem, as you define them, and evaluate it.
Let c=1
Let m=infinity
E=mc^2
E=m * 1^2 = infinity
E = infinity
You still end up with a situation where you need an infinite mass to end up with infinite energy.
You can't do this instantaneously. It takes time to convert mass to energy (or energy to mass) so you have:
E(m) = lim_t-->infinity d(mc^2)/dt
Translated it means that energy is a function of mass. Infinite mass can be converted to infinite energy as the limit of time as it approaches infinity.
In other words it takes forever to convert infinite mass to infinite energy.
And you still have to consider the Lorentz Transformation when you add into the basic problem relativistic changes in velocity (acceleration).
In that case the problem is no longer simply stated as E = mc^2. The relativistic statement of the problem becomes:
E = mc^2/sqrt(1-v^2/c^2)
As you can see in the divisor, as "v" increases ever closer to "c" v^2/c^2 begins to approach unity, i.e. v^2/c^2 = ~1. As that happens your transformation starts to look like this:
E = (mc^2)/sqrt(~1-1). "E" tends to infinity because the divisor is tending to zero. And energy is mass.
Mass is defined as the property of matter that resists a change in momentum. The more massive an object the harder it is to change its momentum (Harder to change its velocity. An imprecise statement for the purist but close enough.).
This is the reason why "c" becomes a limit that cannot be attained. You have to have increasingly larger units of energy to eck out even the slighest change in velocity as you cloesly approach the speed of light. Those units of energy input begin to look like "infinity" the closer you get to the light of speed.
This can't be stated precisely as an algebra problem. To fully appreciate the issue it has to be stated in terms of differential calculus. But the simplified math is close enough for our purposes. /ttiforum/images/graemlins/smile.gif
The modulator uses he natural eletric charge of matter to create energy. The more mass an substance has the more energy it puts out, black holes have an infinte mass, so they would put out an infinte amount of energy. I'm not saying e=mc2 is a problem, i'm saying we have a problem of createing enough energy to move to the speed of light, but with this device it wouldn't matter how much mass the vessel had.