I stumbled across this question at Physics Stack Exchange today. It looks like it's going to get buried, but I wanted to call attention to it here:
http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/200872/why-are-so-many-time-travel-paradoxes-assuming-that-the-future-is-still-valid
It's a bit hard for me to explain what I mean by "the future is still valid", but bear with me. And I hope I'm not asking something incredibly stupid
I'll refer to my version of time travel as "linear time-travel" for a lack of a better term.
Incidentally, I've read a lot about paradoxes lately, including time-travel paradoxes and about the Self-Conservation Principle. But why are almost all sources expecting the "future" to still be valid (and "loop") after time traveling?
What I mean by this is: Instead of time being a loop, why isn't it still just "a z-line"? Wouldn't that basically solve most of the paradoxes automatically (and make more sense, since those paradoxes wouldn't exist then?)
What I mean by "line" is: As soon as a person travels back in time, the whole period travelled is invalidated. That future doesn't have to happen that way anymore, and a new future is created depending on the actions of the traveling person/object. The removed "future" still existed, but now it's part of the past.
Example with the paradox:
Person A1 invents a time machine and uses it to travel back in time.
Person A1 meets him-/herself (person A2) and changes the past in a way that person A2 no longer invents the time machine.
Paradox: Since person A2 didn't invent the time machine, person A1 cannot travel back in time to change the past.
Example without the paradox:
Person A1 invents a time machine and uses it to travel back in time.
Person A1 meets him-/herself (Person A2) and changes the future in a way that person A2 no longer invents the time machine.
The future now unfolds differently. Person A2 no longer invents a time machine and someone else might does in the future, it doesn't matter. Person A1 is still in the past and still remembers his/her invalidated future (actually, past for person A1), living in the same time as Person A2.
I guess my question is: Why do so many paradoxes / theories seem to assume that time travel would have to 'loop', if simply having time travel that actually changes the future whitout 'loops' would remove most paradoxes and make 'more sense' (1)? Why is the theory behind it not leaning more towards 'linear' time-travel?
(1) It would make more sense to me personally, but also since many paradoxes wouldn't even exist. No grandfather paradox, no self-consistency principle, etc - don't all those paradoxes imply that time-travel wouldn't work that way anyways?
http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/200872/why-are-so-many-time-travel-paradoxes-assuming-that-the-future-is-still-valid
It's a bit hard for me to explain what I mean by "the future is still valid", but bear with me. And I hope I'm not asking something incredibly stupid
I'll refer to my version of time travel as "linear time-travel" for a lack of a better term.
Incidentally, I've read a lot about paradoxes lately, including time-travel paradoxes and about the Self-Conservation Principle. But why are almost all sources expecting the "future" to still be valid (and "loop") after time traveling?
What I mean by this is: Instead of time being a loop, why isn't it still just "a z-line"? Wouldn't that basically solve most of the paradoxes automatically (and make more sense, since those paradoxes wouldn't exist then?)
What I mean by "line" is: As soon as a person travels back in time, the whole period travelled is invalidated. That future doesn't have to happen that way anymore, and a new future is created depending on the actions of the traveling person/object. The removed "future" still existed, but now it's part of the past.
Example with the paradox:
Person A1 invents a time machine and uses it to travel back in time.
Person A1 meets him-/herself (person A2) and changes the past in a way that person A2 no longer invents the time machine.
Paradox: Since person A2 didn't invent the time machine, person A1 cannot travel back in time to change the past.
Example without the paradox:
Person A1 invents a time machine and uses it to travel back in time.
Person A1 meets him-/herself (Person A2) and changes the future in a way that person A2 no longer invents the time machine.
The future now unfolds differently. Person A2 no longer invents a time machine and someone else might does in the future, it doesn't matter. Person A1 is still in the past and still remembers his/her invalidated future (actually, past for person A1), living in the same time as Person A2.
I guess my question is: Why do so many paradoxes / theories seem to assume that time travel would have to 'loop', if simply having time travel that actually changes the future whitout 'loops' would remove most paradoxes and make 'more sense' (1)? Why is the theory behind it not leaning more towards 'linear' time-travel?
(1) It would make more sense to me personally, but also since many paradoxes wouldn't even exist. No grandfather paradox, no self-consistency principle, etc - don't all those paradoxes imply that time-travel wouldn't work that way anyways?