I know that this law is empirical and that no proof for it exists. I also know that the web is full of papers that "real" journals refuse to publish that point out major paradoxes. One of my favourites (as it's relatively easy to reproduce) is here:
http://www.padrak.com/ine/SHEEHAN.html
But what I'm curious about is the fact that this law is alleged to have come about because somebody in the 19th century was confident that if it was possible to build a perpetual motion machine, they would have done so by now. It was therefore "no perpetual motion machine, thus the second law of thermodynamics", but later became "the second law of thermodynamics, thus no perpetual machine is possible".
Anybody else got information on this?
http://www.padrak.com/ine/SHEEHAN.html
But what I'm curious about is the fact that this law is alleged to have come about because somebody in the 19th century was confident that if it was possible to build a perpetual motion machine, they would have done so by now. It was therefore "no perpetual motion machine, thus the second law of thermodynamics", but later became "the second law of thermodynamics, thus no perpetual machine is possible".
Anybody else got information on this?