G
Guest
After much thought and consideration on our discussions regarding paradoxes, free will and the allowances for a pre-determined nature in causality, (which in itself is a bit of an oxymoron is it not), it still comes down to a simple problem I can't get around.
It wasn't easy to arrive at the alleged "simple" problem because your postulations have forced me to consider a multitude of trains of thought that were themselves very complicated at times.
Nonetheless...
A time traveller visits the past. He does not disrupt the timeline because it was always determined he would make this vist and the results would be whatever they "were", resulting in what now "is". (If I understand your hypothesis correctly.)
In the "present" where he made this descision to take the time trip originally, he never instigates this particular exact same trip to the past again and goes on with his life, maybe taking other trips, maybe not. Either way, one would have to assume he cannot instigate this same EXACT trip to the past more than once, otherwise his now "present" would end there, since he would never procede forward from the time he instigates the trip back.
Does this original trip then become a sort of "causal loop" that exists independent of his current forward progression into space/time? i.e. - He moves on, but there exists this loop that occurs because the past he travelled to, and then left to return to his then present, nonetheless proceeds forward to the time he made the trip in the first place, thereby re-instigating the original loop. Actually, which IS the original loop? The one that originated in the past where he showed up for a while and then left? Or the one that originated with him making the trip in the first place? If that "past" actually existed in the first place as a tangible place for him to travel to from the present, is not that same past now still moving forward until the time he is born, grows up and takes the original trip? (See my adjacent note to James Anthony re: multiversity on this issue.) How is it now possible for him to be moving forward in his daily life while some manifestation of him is stuck in this causal loop from a long past ago he never really lived in and a short past ago when he made a time trip to it?
Does the loop stop when he decides NOT to make the trip again? If the loop stops, did it ever exist?
He either made the trip or he didn't. The scenario eventually leads to the question being unanswerable. A paradox in itself.
Logic does not allow me accept the possibility of time travel in this manner. Even if you put the condition on it that you CANNOT change past events, the trip itself becomes a paradox in it's own right. It forces the concept of multiversity.
I knew my thoughts on this were solid to me anyway, but thanks for setting up a scenario that forced me to think it through again.
See my note to James.
It wasn't easy to arrive at the alleged "simple" problem because your postulations have forced me to consider a multitude of trains of thought that were themselves very complicated at times.
Nonetheless...
A time traveller visits the past. He does not disrupt the timeline because it was always determined he would make this vist and the results would be whatever they "were", resulting in what now "is". (If I understand your hypothesis correctly.)
In the "present" where he made this descision to take the time trip originally, he never instigates this particular exact same trip to the past again and goes on with his life, maybe taking other trips, maybe not. Either way, one would have to assume he cannot instigate this same EXACT trip to the past more than once, otherwise his now "present" would end there, since he would never procede forward from the time he instigates the trip back.
Does this original trip then become a sort of "causal loop" that exists independent of his current forward progression into space/time? i.e. - He moves on, but there exists this loop that occurs because the past he travelled to, and then left to return to his then present, nonetheless proceeds forward to the time he made the trip in the first place, thereby re-instigating the original loop. Actually, which IS the original loop? The one that originated in the past where he showed up for a while and then left? Or the one that originated with him making the trip in the first place? If that "past" actually existed in the first place as a tangible place for him to travel to from the present, is not that same past now still moving forward until the time he is born, grows up and takes the original trip? (See my adjacent note to James Anthony re: multiversity on this issue.) How is it now possible for him to be moving forward in his daily life while some manifestation of him is stuck in this causal loop from a long past ago he never really lived in and a short past ago when he made a time trip to it?
Does the loop stop when he decides NOT to make the trip again? If the loop stops, did it ever exist?
He either made the trip or he didn't. The scenario eventually leads to the question being unanswerable. A paradox in itself.
Logic does not allow me accept the possibility of time travel in this manner. Even if you put the condition on it that you CANNOT change past events, the trip itself becomes a paradox in it's own right. It forces the concept of multiversity.
I knew my thoughts on this were solid to me anyway, but thanks for setting up a scenario that forced me to think it through again.
See my note to James.