# Time Machine Equation

#### Leonard

##### Member
May have an equation to make a time machine out of a space crafft. The equation is:

a=(F/m)*v^n

where a is the rectilinear acceleration of the mass m or spacecraft, F is the thrust force of the motors in same
direction
as a and, velocity v of mass m in same direction as a. The exponent n seems not be a constant, it increases
with
F/m and perhaps increases with v. For F/m=100 newtons/kilogram, the n=1/2; for F/m=1newton/kilogram, the
n=1/100; and for F/m= 10 newtons/kilogram, the n=1/3. When n becomes greater than 1, the acceleration a
may become
negative and the spacecraft may travel backwards
in time. This still has to be tested using electrons as the mass m

It's not just acceleration however the state of mass once in acceleration.

M being mass can never be space, unless M is assigned to a change in frequency, then of course it is not longer mass, however religaited to another frequency.

So in the truest sence, outer space is not N or the null state, however frequencied space, which is actually M+.

When one acceleriats mass within the confines of that particular masse's own signatured space, to what component can this mass be acceleraited to?

Note I did not say maximum vewlocity, however component mass acceleraition?

So an ^ in C over a defined course of M+ to what effect will change M+ or stringed space?

The answer does not lie in acceleration or curvalinnear vectors at all, does it Lenoard.

What is frequencied pressure?

When the exponent becomes nearly equal to 1, the acceleration may
be very large. The electron may seem to be in one or more places
at the same time. This seems to have been done. Electrons can be send
through two very small slits in a metal plate. This causes the electrons to interfere
with each other producing fringe patterns. A single electron can travel
through both slits at the same time producing an interference pattern.
The interference pattern can be detected by a photomultiplier tube.
The photomultiplier tube can be shut off when the electron is send,
and turned back on again after the electron is gone. If the photomultiplier
tube displays an interference pattern, the electron may have moved
backwards in time for a few milliseconds when n&gt;1.

Re: Time Machine Equation, electrons not mass:

Yes Len' the double slit expierment and this is similar to the optical double slit expierment, of less proportions.

This is grand information that you have presented here and I am truly impressed.

This means any device outside of matter as an occurance to time travel backwards in time, or T.

This could be electrons, or photons, such as said by the mythalogical creature, Dr. David Anderson could be used as socks of venture, for anyone who would place such a sock around their applicances.

The we have mass =ing M and eletrons equaling e lower case, then in what exitation phase, and in what strength does e envelope M, in order to escape the scaler quotent, which Einstin had stipulaited was the phantom backdoor lines, of any corner in null space?

I'm so amaized that you have brought this information foward, I need to come over to your house with a bottle of wine, so that you can make spagettii for me.

Thank you Len, Dan /ttiforum/images/graemlins/smile.gif

Time Machine Equation Part 3:

Time equation a=(F/m)* v^n =dv/dt says that when the velocity v of mass m is very fast,
the mass may travel backwards or forwards in time. The exact velocity v at which mass m may travel through
time is not known at this time. Can integrate this equation using calculus as:

dt * (F/m) =(v^-n )* dv.

This produces:

(F/m)*t =(1/(1-n))* v^(1-n) , for n not equal to 1, or

(F/m)*t= Ln v , for n=1.

Then mass m velocity becomes:

v= [(n-1)*(F/m)*t]^(1/(n-1)), for n not equal to one, or

v= e^((F/m)*t), e=2.7, for n=1

,where t is acceleration a duration.

When n is equal to very close to 1, the velocity v may become very large
and the mass m may travel backwards in time for a few milliseconds.
How was exponent n thought of?
Some of us can move our hands a distance of s= 1 metre in about t= 0.010 second.
If the acceleration for F was steady during time t, the
hand acceleration with mass m should be:

a=s/(t*t) = 10000 metres/(second*second)= k*g*t,

with g-force g=F/(m*x)= 10 g., where x=9.81 newtons/kilogram.

Then factor k becomes:

k=s/(t*t*t*g)=100000 metres/(second*second*second).

Then a=k*g*t is propotional to a=(F/m)*v^n .
This is part of the reson where exponent n comes from.
You can measure s at t of your moving hand mass m with an ultra sonic location
detector from Vernier and Texas Instruments

Friend Leonard

Yes acceleration was a very big issue some twenty years ago, however that is no longer a problem.
What I mean is that I you could make the gravitational field of that spaceship inversely proportional to its mass, taking into consideration the nearest starÂ´s density as a constant you could actually open up a hole into the fabric of time.

For example, if our moon would have a gravitational field corresponding to that of our Sun, this would create an event singularity making a small hole into the fabric of time, once the hole opened you would need to perpetuate it long enough to make your temporal stroll feasible.

Well I hope you can put these words into numbers, If not let me know. I can help.

Until later becomes now.

Leonard,

In your original formula you indicate â€œv ^nâ€ and express â€œnâ€ as a fractional exponent (a radical). You are taking the â€œn-rootâ€ of â€œvâ€ i.e,

100 newtons * sqrt(v)
10 newtons * cuberoot (v)
1 newton * 100th root (v)

Is this what you intended?

In your acceleration model â€œmâ€ varies with changes in â€œvâ€

â€œmâ€ should be expressed in your acceleration model as â€œgamma * m_0â€ where gamma is 1/sqrt 1- (v^2/c^2)

â€œmâ€ is the denominator in (F/m) and the result of that expression varies inversely with changes in â€œvâ€.

As â€œvâ€ tends to â€œcâ€, (F/m) tends to zero. At velocity v = c, m = infinity and (F/m) ~ zero. Therefore (F/m) * v^n ~ 0: a~0

As you express in later posts, this really is a situation where calculus, not algebra, is the appropriate method for stating the situation. (Unkless we want to restate the formula every time our chrononaut experiences a change in "v". )

Leonard, Darby and Transient,

I'm impressed with the math since I'm no mathematician but there is one element that seems to be left out of the equation except in Transient's post where it wouldn't be as much of a factor.

One of the things that always impresses me about scientists is how they can divorce themselves from the equation and become neutral observers traveling along with the differential equations yet being separate from it and therefore not included in the scenario. From the point of view of the crononaut, there would be no change whatsoever since he is part of the mass and traveling along with the velocity. Since the measure of time necessitates measurement from point a to point b, his mass would increase as well and therefore there would be no apparent increase or decrease of time. From the neutral observers point of view, however, time would not go backward but slow down. At C it would cease altogether. Of course, in Transient's point of reference, there would be no apparent change in anything since only the field outside of the ship would "experience" any kind of change. Now if the observer was himself traveling at C, again there would be no apparent change. Since, I assume, they are traveling towards something and away from something, there would be an associated blue/red shift depending on the point of view.

The crucial part of this equation then is actually the observer. Even his observation would be faulty as it would be if observing something entering within the event horizon of a black hole, for example. Time would simply freeze for the craft. Since this is a hypothetical situation, and no observer would actually be able to observe without becoming part of the experiment. The only practicality that could arise from this experiment is if a round trip--say to the sun and back--were done and observers on the earth were able to keep track of the craft, the observations they made could possibly affect the outcome as it apparently does when observing light from distant galaxies. Would the same thing happen to the craft as it does to light when observed, ie, change its characteristics from particle to wave? Would we see a whole series of crafts all the way there and back when we tried to determine its position? It certainly is a mind bender. Could it possibly even be that they would return at a very short period after they left if observed constantly? It certainly taxes the mind.

The n is the exponent of v in the equation a=(F/m)*v^n.
If n is 1/2 the a becomes (F/m) multiplied by the square root of velocity v.
If n is 1 then a=(F/m)*v.
The force F is the force applied to move mass m. For example, if this force F
was 10 newtons, and mass m equals 1 kilogram, the F/m becomes 10 newtons/kilogram.
If F/m =0 newtons/kilogram and speed v=0 metre/second, the n becomes n=0, and the
acceleration a becomes a=0 metre/(second*second).
The mass acceleration a is a function of acceleration time t and (F/m) as a=(F/m)*t , but
assuming that t does not affect acceleration a, but velocity v does, the t is replaced by v to make
equation a=(F/m)*v^n. This equation is a simple enterpretation of acceleration, but it may help
show that exponent n is determined by (F/m) and v. The n is proportional to (F/m)*v]^j, where j&gt;0.
If you measure the speed of an automobile on a level road, the car's velocity v = g*(t^w) ,where
exponent w=1.7&gt;0, with steady g-force of g=0.10 g. Using calculus, the car's acceleration becomes
a=w*g*t^(w-1) which is proportional to a=(F/m)*v^n. The v is velocity isat acceleration time t and is in
same direction as a.

The time machine equation a=(F/m)*v^n is for rectilinear velocity. Perhaps
it may work for angular acceleration a or subatomic partical spin speed acceleration.
If the particle spin acceleration a increases to a certain level, the particle may travel trough time.
The high velocity v obtained may cause the particle like the proton to fall apart due to centrifical force.
Perhaps electromagnetic fields can be used the accelerate the particles's spin speed v to time
travel speed. With angular acceleration a for time travel, no space is needed to achieve time travel speed v.
All what someone needs to do is the spin the subatomic particles of the spacecraft very fast with
electromagnetic fields for time travel

Time Machine Equation Part 4

The universe or space may have at least 6 dimensions, the three dimensions x, y and z of 3 dimenisional space
locating a point P(x,y,z) in space, with
the fourth dimension as time t. The point P is located in time and space by P(x,y,z,t). The fifth dimension may
be parallel time lines. Then point P would be located at P(x,y,z,t,U) , where U is a particular time line or
universe and t a single moment in time. Then a particular region in space does not have to be the same
as other regions of space, that is, different spaces may have different time flow rates. A clock may run a little faster in
another region of space. Parallel time lines may intersect briefly in some regions in space.
This may allow masses like m to
travel faster than the speed of light c, if it makes
very small jumps though though 3 dimensional space and travelling in 6 dimensional space. The space craft
or even an electron mass m may then seem appear to be travelling faster than the speed of light c.
We can induce an instant voltage at a radio receiver antenna if we watch the radio signals on an oscilloscope
screen, or some can detect the speed of light c of radar radio waves. Radio waves can travel at c or possibly
instantantly because the universe or space has at least 6 dimensions. Scientists have a theory of a 10 dimensional
space, or universe.

To: Darby, and other timetravelinsitute website readers:

The m in the acceleration equation a is the mass of the object being pushed
or pulled by the force F. Experiments have shown that exponent n in equation

a=(F/m) *v^n,

does not have to equal to 0. If n=0, the velocity v would have not affect an the
acceleration a. The acceleration a and velocity v are only in a single direction
in a straight path. If the direction of vectors a and v are changed more rocket fuel energy
is needed to achieve the same magnitude of acceleration a. For example, if
the a is a vector then its vector components are a1, a2, a3,...aj. These vector
components are in different directions 1,2,3,...j. Then:

a=(F/m)*v^n=[(a1)^2+(a2)^2+(a3)^2+...(aj)^2]^0.5,

where n approaches 0 when number of directions or vector components j of a becomes very large.
The symbol * means multiplication and ^ means exponent in equations.
Example, (a1)^2 means acceleration component or acceleration a1 to the power of 2.

Leonard,
Calgary,
March 15, 2003.

Mass Acceleration Part 5

The acceleration equation

a=(F/m)*v^n

seems also to apply to angular acceleration of a spinning wheel.
The angular velocity of a spinning wheel which spins about a stationary
axis seem to be:

w=(T/I)*t^x,

where T is torque applied to flywheel with moment of inertia I and t is
the acceleration time or time period during the increase of angular velocity w
increases or decreases. Exponent x is equal to or greater than 1.
Similarly as equation of a, the exponent x should depend on (T/I) and w.
When (T/I) and w are small the x=1. The x should increase as (T/I) and
w increases. The above observations were seen from inaccurate measurements.
Still have to make more accurate measurements to verify for
large values of x&gt;1.
Moment of inertia of the flywheel's mass has units of kilogram metre squared.

Leonard,
[email protected]
Calgary,
March 15, 2003.

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